But your premise is a modern assumption in and of itself which would be foreign to any Christian in the First Century for whom the Bible didn't exist. "God's silence isn't permission" is assuming God only speaks via the Bible. Which version? Which translation? Which language? How do you know?
Comments
The Bible also states that God's word was not "interpreted by the prophets who wrote it but that holy men of God were moved along by the Spirit when they wrote.
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God indicated in the New Testament that He was going to complete His revelation and that when it was complete that it would be τέλειος.
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God has now revealed through His divine power "all things which pertain to life and godliness.
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The Bible as it was originally revealed is the source of knowing God's will.
Nothing which has occurred in the last 19th centuries has amended the scriptures in any way. That includes the so-called "church councils".
God decided what was scripture and what was not.
None of us have any say in the matter.
If God decided that a book which is considered "apochryphal" is scripture then it is. If God decided that a book which is considered canonical is not scripture then it is not.
But God has told us that there are many false teachers and that Satan presents himself as if he were a minister of light.
I have no problem seeing the difference between the biblical text and the "Book of Mormon".
Same is true of much older books.
But God is the judge not me
I do know enough to recognize when a religious practice has no basis in the biblical text.
I do know enough to be able to distinguish when someone is violating the principle contained in the larger context of 1 Corinthians 2:13.