am I missing something or is there no exact historical precedent for a regime that explicitly advertises not just punishment but torture for its citizens - and not just that but torture executed by a foreign actor? even the Inquisition, which this feels a bit like, didn't outsource torture, right?
Comments
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Holocaust_transports_from_Slovakia
https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/58412/does-torture-violate-the-us-federal-constitution-and-if-so-under-which-theory
They are wrong, of course, but this is the brain power we are up against.
It's difficult to fight stupid.