That is different, Colorado started the issue and it was SCOTUS clarifying the matter was of Federal jurisdiction. If a conviction had been first achieved, the 14th would apply without doubts. I am an American just as I hope you are too.
Once an insurrection conviction is achieved, then Congress can call for an enforcement of Ammendment #14, but democrats don't have the spine to do it even with a conviction... maybe the People could but we need a conviction.
Congress doesn't need a conviction to disqualify a person under the 14th. And what is this obsession with calling Dems "spineless"? What would be the point when republicans control the House?
Now I really wonder if you have ever read Amendment # 14. No obsession here, I honestly believe many Republicans would join democrats, but no insurrection has been proven, so they will not support the move just because there is a sentiment of insurrection. Anyway, glad to exchange opinions with you.
We are talking about 14th Ammendment Sect 3, last sentence says Congress can dissolve the inability to occupy office for an individual guilty of insurrection, not the opposite. Since the insurrection has not been proven in court, it is just an illusion that the 14th applies in this case.
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