Suppose you run a restaurant that sells two wines. One is expensive, and one you get in bulk under a generic label. But you happen to know that it's just marketing, and they actually come from the exact same barrels. In that case, is it still illegal to switch?
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Like if the owner just says he knows because Trust Me Bro, that probably wouldn't hold up. But if you can show that the supplier is the same or something, you'd probably be fine.
As a customer, if part of what you're paying for is the *experience* of being served an expensive wine, then you should be entitled to have that experience even if it's just for show.
It really depends on this case on the definition and wording. There are many examples in commerce where a "brand" is more about provenance and chain of custody than the atoms themselves.
The question here is if you knew the wine was actually like from the same barrel, I think.
It's the same theatre show etc, and the seat is 100% equivalent to the one next to it sold for 5x the price. The discount is contingent on a qualification, so it's not legal to resell at another price regardless of the nature of product