Anyone ever applied the kind of analysis that's been used in Wales/Cornwall under the banner of "colonialism" to northern England in the early-modern era?
Wondering what comparison with a (rebellious) region *not* considered a colony would do re: sharpening our theories of "Celtic colonisation"
Wondering what comparison with a (rebellious) region *not* considered a colony would do re: sharpening our theories of "Celtic colonisation"
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https://researchrepository.universityofgalway.ie/entities/publication/e6626935-9833-42f0-8484-ddaa49050eb8
But that's fiction, so...
We’d say the distinct period of colonisation ends around 1535-42 with the acts of the Union - which ended the period where the Welsh language and people suffered under a distinct legal code operated by a foreign power - a clearly colonial relationship.
Don’t know if this is the kind of thing you’re thinking of.
That may have a less than great impact on the analysis
England = London and the Home Counties basically, and everything else is booty.